LillyBeth92 Posted June 8, 2014 Share Posted June 8, 2014 (edited) Technically the dictionary has the term rape as forced penetration done in a woman but not sure if it would apply similar if it were a drugged guy or what exactly it would have to be to be considered male rape. It's regarding my neighbor's guy friend (since he doesn't want to be known, I'll call him Joe) who has only shared his story with him very recently. He refuses to tell anyone else and won't report it even after 6 years later. He was 17 at the time. According to my neighbor, Joe was telling the story about waking up tied up with 2 ugly fat women that seemed like they were in their mid 20's (both of continue switching turns and then put a dildo in his anus multiple times till he was sored) and how he couldn't really recall anything other than passing out on the 2nd drink. From what I heard, he's still trying to move on from that and actually feels disgusted till this day and some of his money on his wallet got stolen too. Also, he was a virgin then and actually wanted to lose it to a gf in a relationship and that's what makes it harder for him to get over it. IMO I think this is rape even though that's not in the dictionary but not sure how would the legal system view it if he actually were to come forward; I think courts would still just have it written down as sexual assault. Also, is it really that easy for a guy to still have an erection and orgams while he's totally unconscious and obviously not even functioning at that moment? I used to think that a guy could mainly get turned on if he's fully awaken and actually finds the girl very attractive but from Joe's description, it was a gross and depressing experience for him. Have run into Joe a couple times during the his visits and even before knowing the story, he would act distrusting towards others, always looking who's behind him and kind of awkward. Edited June 8, 2014 by LillyBeth92 Link to post Share on other sites
melodicintention Posted July 11, 2014 Share Posted July 11, 2014 Click this link and contact these people to ask your questions to, or better yet hand the phone to your friend. https://www.rainn.org/get-help/national-sexual-assault-hotline Link to post Share on other sites
pteromom Posted July 11, 2014 Share Posted July 11, 2014 Of course it is rape. He didn't consent to the sex, and wasn't even conscious for part of it. According to the Rape Victim Advocacy Program, arousal is actually quite common in sexual assault scenarios involving both male and female victims:Male victims/survivors are often ashamed and confused when their body responds during an assault. Frequently, men who are sexually assaulted or raped have an involuntary or forced erection or ejaculation. Also, muscles in the anus often relax when a man is raped. This does not mean that the survivor wanted to be raped or sexually assaulted. Involuntary erections and ejaculations are normal reactions to physical stimulation even when sex is non-consensual. Link to post Share on other sites
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